Practice Paper 1

1. Following is an example of competitive enzyme blockage, except           

(A) Thymidylate synthase by 5FU

(B) DHFR by methotrexate

(C) Cyclooxygenase by aspirin

(D) Coagulation by dicoumarol

2. The buffering capacity of a buffer is maximum at pH equal to:

(A) 0.5 pKa.                              (B) pKa.

(C) pka+ 1.                                (D) 2 pKa.

3. The conversion of an optically pure isomer (enantiomer) into a mixture of equal amounts of both dextro and levo forms is called as:

(A) Polymerization.        (B) Stereoisomerization

(C) Racemization           (D) Fractionation.

4. Selenium is an essential component of:

(A) Glutathione synthetase

(B) Glutathione peroxidase

(C) Xanthine dehydrogenase

(D) Cytochrome oxidase

5. In competitive inhibition the relation of Km and Vmax is one of the following:

(A) Km and Vmax are the same

(B) Km increases and Vmax is the same

(C) Km decreases and Vmax increases

(D) Km and Vmax decreases


6. Mc Ardle’s sweat chloride test is read after:

(A) 1 hour                      (B) 2 hours

(C) 4 hours                    (D) 24 hours

7. Km of an enzyme is:

(A) Dissociation constant

(B) The normal physiological substrate concentration

(C) The substrate concentration that produces half maximum velocity

(D) Numerically identical for all isozymes that catalyze a given reaction

8. Formation of hydrogen peroxide requires following enzymes?    

(A) Ligase                     (B) Dehydrogenase

(C) Oxygenase              (D) Oxidase

9. In the small intestine, cholera toxin acts by:

(A) ADP-ribosylation of the G regulatory protein

(B) Inhibition of adenyl cyclase

(C) Activation of GTPase

(D) Active absorption of NaC1

10. Keratin in the nail is exceptionally strong than others because of

(A) Disulphide bond      (B) Van der Wall’s forces

(C) Ionic bonds             (D) Calcification

11. Electrophoresis done under pH gradient is

(A) Isoosmotic              (B) Isoelectric

(C) Ion exchange           (D) None

12. Body water content in percentage of body weight is lowest in

(A) Well built man                      (B) Fat woman

(C) Well nourished child             (D) Fat man

13. Commonest among diseases with Mendelian inheritance is        

(A) Autosomal dominant

(B) Autosomal recessive

(C) X-linked recessive

(D) X-dominant

14. Most important compensatory mechanism in chronic metabolic acidosis

(A) Hyperventilation

(B) Increased NH3 excretion by kidneys

(C) Increased urinary phosphates

(D) Increased HCO3 production


15. Mousy odour urine is seen in

(A) Phenylketonuria

(B) Maple syrup urine disease

(C) Isovalericaciduria

(D) None of the above

16. The following about biological membrane is correct       

(A) They are symmetric bileaflet structure

(B) Their constituent lipid & protein moieties are held together by covalent interaction

(C) They are rigid assemblies of protein, lipid & carbohydrates

(D) Their lipid moieties are amphipathic in nature


17. Preservative used for urine in testing for porphyrins is

(A) NaOH                      (B) Formalin

(C) HC1             (D) Boric acid

18. In clinical practice, which is the most common cause of lactic acidosis?

(A) Circulatory failure     (B) Biguanide intake

(C) Ethanol                    (D) Liver failure

19. For which is cGMP second messenger

(A) Thyroxine                 (B) Atrial natriuretic peptide

(C) GH                          (D) Cortisone.


20. Inhibition of the synthesis of ATP during oxidative phosphorylation by oligomycin is thought to be due to which of the following events?

A. Blocking of the proton gradient between NADH-Q reductase and QH2

B. Blocking of the proton gradient between cytochrome c1 and cytochrome c

C. Dissociating of cytochrome c from mitochondrial membranes

D. Inhibiting of mitochondrial ATPase

21. In scurvy, defective post translational modification is caused by deficient formation of:

A. Cholesterol                         B. Glycoprotein

C. Hydroxyproline                   D. Coenzyme Q


22. The lipid bilayer of cell membrane exists as

(A) Solid                       (B) Semisolid

(C) Gel                          (D) Fibers

23. Enzyme + Coenzyme constitutes

(a) Apoenzyme              (b) Proenzyme

(c) Protoenzyme            (d) Holoenzyme

24. Major basic protein is produced by

(A) Basophils                (B) Monocytes

(C) Eosinophils             (D) Mast cells

25. Histamine is produced by

(A) Oxidation                 (B) Reduction

(C) Deamination            (D) Decarboxylation


26. Specific dynamic action is maximum in

(A) Proteins                   (B) Carbohydrate

(C) Fats                        (D) Vitamins

27. The brush border bound hydrolase linked with sucrase is           

(A) Alpha dextrinase      (B) Glucose hydrolase

(C) Trehalase                 (D) Alpha fructose

28. A bilipid layer is most permeable to

(A) Potassium                           (B) Sodium

(C) Glucose                               (D) Urea

29. Fluorescamine is used to detect

(A) Amino acids                        (B) Fatty acids

(C) Glucose                   (D) All

30. The largest amounts of prostaglandins are seen in:

(A) Seminal fluid            (B) CSF

(C) Blood                      (D) Urine

31. Sulphonamides are conjugated by:

(A) Glucoronic acid        (B) Cysteine

(C) Methionine               (D) Acetyl CoA

32. The pentose phosphate cycle produces which of the following sugars?

A. Deoxyribose                         B. Glucose

C. Lactose                    D. Ribose


33. The oxidation of primary alcohol group in glucose results in:

(A) Gluconic acid           (B) Glutaric acid

(C) Glucuronic acid        (D) Hyaluronic acid

34. Major mono-oxygenase in endoplasmic reticulum is:

A. Cytochromebs

B. Cytochrome P450

C. Epoxide hydrolase

D. Glutathione transferase

35. During gluconeogenesis reducing equivalents from mitochondria to the cytosol are transported by:

(A) Malate                     (B) Aspartate

(C) Glutamate.               (D) Oxaloacetate

36.  Molisch’s test is positive in all Except:

(A) Mucoproteins           (B) Glycoproteins

(C) Sucrose                   (D) Phospholipids

37. Which metabolite of TCA cycle is used in detoxification of ammonia in brain:

(A) Alpha ketoglutarate              (B) Ornithine

(C) Oxaloacetate                       (D) Glycine

38. Skeletal muscle is deficient in

(A) Glucose — 6 — phosphatase

(B) Hexokinase

(C) Isomerase

(D) Phosphofructokinase

39. Guaiac test is used for

(A) Pentosuria               (B) Fructosuria

(C) Occult blood in stool            (D) Pancreatitis

40. Aldose sugar is converted to ketose sugar by

(A) Oxido reductase      (B) Aldose

(C) Decarboxylase         (D) Isomerase


41. Part of M-RNA not included during protein synthesis

(A) Intron                       (B) Codon

(C) Exon                       (D) Cistron

42. NADPH is required for

(A) Gluconeogenesis     (B) Glycolysis

(C) Fatty acid synthesis (D) Glycogenolysis


43. Fluroacetate inhibits

(A) Citrate synthetase

(B) Aconitase

(C) Succinic dehydrogenase

(D) Aiphaketoglutarate dehydrogenase


44. Cerebroside contains which sugar moiety

(A) Ribose                    (B) Fructose

(C) Galactose                (D) Glucose

45. In McArdle’s disease, Muscle cannot make use of glycogen for energy due to the absence of

(A) Glucose —6-phosphotase

(B) Glucokinase

(C) Phosphorylase

(D) Phosphoglucomutase

46. Muscle is not involved in which type of glycogen storage disease.          

(A) Type I                      (B) Type II

(C) Type III                    (D) Type IV

47. All the following gluconeogenic except

(A) Glycerol                   (B) Alanine

(C) Acetoacetate           (D) Lactate

48. Flouride inhibits

(A) Enolase                   (B) Pyruvate kinase

(C) LDH                        (D) Oxygenase

49. Which type of Glycogenosis is transmitted by X-linked genes     

(A) Type I          (B) Type II

(C) Type III        (D) Phosphorylase b kinase

50. Which of the following is not the product of HMP shunt


(B) D fructose 6 phosphate

(C) D Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate

(D) None of the above

51. Major contribution towards gluconeogenesis is by

(A) Lactate                    (B) Glycerol

(C) Ketones                   (D) Alanine

52. TCA cycle does not take place in

(A) Hepatocyte              (B) Osteocyte

(C) Neuron                    (D) Erythrocyte

53. The reactions of the urea cycle occurs in which one of the following?

A. In the cytosol

B. In lysosomes

C. In the mitochondrial matrix

D. In the mitochondrial matrix and the cytosol

54. Carbamoyl phosphate is used in

(A) Urea                        (B) Uric acid

(C) Pyruvic acid             (D) Stearic acid

55. Long chain fatty acid transported into inner mitochondria membrane by

(A) Acyl carrier protein   (B) Acyl carnitine

(C) Simple diffusion      (D) Energy mediated

56. Saponification means hydrolysis of fats by

(A) Acid                        (B) Alkali

(C) Water                      (D) Enzymes


 57. Proteins binding to DNA has

(A) Copper                    (B) Zinc

(C) Cobalt                     (D) Iron

58.  Familial hypercholesterolemia is

(A) Deficient LDL receptors

(B) Deficient HDL receptors

(C) HMG CoA reductase deficiency

(D) Deficient VLDL receptors

59.  Dietary cholesterol is transported to extrahepatic tissue by

(A) Chylomicrons           (B) VLDL

(C) LDL                         (D) HDL

60. Indole ring is present in

(A) Tryptophan              (B) Valine

(C) Methionine               (D) Histidine

61. Leucine zipper; motif is a mediator for

(A) Membrane attack complexes

(B) Ligand membranes

(C) Binding of regulatory proteins to DNA

(D) Cyclic GMP

62. Multienzyme complex in humans

(A) Fatty acid synthetase

(B) Malonyl CoA Carboxylase

(C) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

(D) Adenosine phospho ribosyl transferase

63. Which of the following biochemical changes is not indicative of Hyperlipidemia type IIa?

(A) VLDL is increased    (B) VLDL normal

(C) LDL increased          (D) HDL increased

64. Which is the most essential fatty acid?

(A) Linolenic acid                       (B) Linoleic acid

(C) Arachidonic acid                  (D) Oleic acid.


65. Function of endonucleases

(A) Cut DNA at specific DNA sequences

(B) To point out the coding regions

(C) Enhancers

(D) To find out antibiotic resistance

66. The product of oxidation of odd chain fatty acids is         

(A) Aceto acetyl CoA     (B) Malonyl CoA

(C) Propionyl CoA         (D) Fumaryl CoA.


67. The lipid which accumulates in fatty liver is

(A) Triglycerides            (B) FFA

(C) Lipoprotein              (D) Cholesterol

68. Which is lipotropic factor

(A) HDL                        (B) Insulin

(C) Choline                    (D) Carnitine

69. Carnitine is synthesized from:

A. Lysine and methionine

B. Malonyl CoA and glycerol phosphate

C. Leucine and isoleucine

D. Glycine and arginine

70. Most of the reducing equivalents utilized for synthesis of fatty acids can be generated from:

A. The pentose phosphate pathway

B. Glycolysis

C. The citric acid cycle

D. Mitochondrial malate dehydrogenase

71. Polymerase chain Reaction is

(A) Enzymatic amplification of gene

(B) Genetic engineering mediated gene amplification

(C) Duplication of gene

(D) Cleavage of gene

72. One of the following enzymes is not a protein:    

(A) DNAase                   (B) Abzyme

(C) Eco RI.                    (D) Ribozyme

73. Decarboxylation of which amino acid yields a vasoactive substance:      

(A) Alanine                    (B) Glycine

(C) Histidine                  (D) Arginine

74. Lipogenesis occurs in which cellular compartment.

A. Cytosol                    B. Endoplasmic reticulum

C. Golgi body               D. Mitochondria

75. Which of the following amino acids is associated with increased risk of Myocardial Infarction.

(A) Methionine               (B) Homocysteine

(C) Ornithine                  (D) Valine

76. Which is a denaturing agent        

(A) Guanidine                (B) Glutamate

(C) Glycine                    (D) Guanosine


77. The serine proteases are all except

(A) Elastase                  (B) Chymotrypsin

(C) Trypsin                    (D) Pepsin

78. Aromatic amino acids are all except

(A) Tryptophan              (B) Tyrosine

(C) Histidine                  (D) Arginine

79. In Hartnup’s disease the following is excreted in the urine:         

(A) Ornithine                  (B) Glycine

(C) Tryptophan              (D) Cystine

80. Protein synthesis occurs in;

A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

C. Mitochondria

D. Golgi apparatus

81. Visualisation of specific RNA fragment using cDNA probe is

(A) Southern blotting     (B) Western blotting

(C) Eastern blotting       (D) Northern blotting

82. Chaperone proteins are:

A. Needed for initiating protein synthesis

B. Required for posttranslafional covalent alteration of proteins

C. Required for proper folding of proteins

D. Essential for quaternary structure of proteins

83. The breakdown product of ribonuclease action is

(A) Nucleoside 5’ phosphate

(B) Nucleoside 3’ phosphates only

(C) Nucleoside 3’ phosphate + Oligonucleotides

(D) Purine & pyrimidine bases


84. Carbamoyl phosphate is involved in the synthesis of:

A. Purine and uric acid

B. Purine and pyrimidine

C. Purine and urea

D. Pyrimidine and urea

85. Lesch Nyhan syndrome is due to:

A. Underactive HMP shunt

B. Defective orotic acid metabolism

C. HGPRTase deficiency

D. PRPP synthetase deficiency

86. Which one is nonsense codon:

(A) UUA                        (B) UAG

(C) UAU                        (D) All of the above


87. In restriction fragment length polymorphism, DNA separation is done using

(A) Gel electrophoresis

(B) Ultra centrifugation

(C) High performance liquid chromatography

(D) Ion exchange chromatography


88.  Methyl donor is

(A) N-5 methyl tetra hydro folate

(B) Homocystine

(C) Adenosyl methionine

(D) Tetra hydro folate

89. In which parameter monitoring, urine sample is prevented from exposure to prevent photo degradation

(A) Creatine                   (B) Carotene

(C) Cortisol                   (D) Uric-acid

90. Which of the following RNA contains thymidine

(A) tRNA                       (B) Ribosomal RNA

(C) mRNA                     (D) Eukaryotic RNA

91. A promoter site on DNA:

A. Codes for RNA polymerase

B. Initiates transcription

C. Regulates termination

D. Transcribes repressor

92. Acholuric jaundice is caused by

(A) Obstructive jaundice (B) Hemolytic jaundice

(C) Infective jaundice     (D) All of the above

93. All are true of the genetic code except:

(A) Degenerate              (B) Universal

(C) Punctuation             (D) Non overlapping

94. “Triple repeat sequence” diseases include?

(A) Alzheimers disease

(B) Amyotrphic lateral sclerosis

(C) Ataxia telangieclasia

(D) Hungtinton’s chorea

95. The vitamin that is useful in cancer is      

(A)A                              (B) B complex

(C) C                             (D) E

96. What deficiency causes methyl malonic aciduria

(A) Vitamin B 12            (B) Folic acid

(C) Thiamine                  (D) Pantothenic acid


97. Starting from the 3’ end (acceptor arm) the correct sequence (towards 5’ end) of arms In tRNA is:           

(A) Pseudouridine arm, anticodon arm, variable arm, D arm

(B) D arm, anticodon arm, variable arm, pseudouridine arm

(C) Pseudouridine arm, variable arm, anticodon arm, D arm

(D) D arm, variable arm, anticodon arm, pseudouridine arm

98. Dehydrogenases serve two main functions: (1) transfer of H+ from one substrate to another in a coupled oxidation-reduction reaction; and (2) they serve as components in the respiratory chain of electron transport. Dehydrogenases can use which of the following compounds as an electron acceptor?

A. H2O                          B. NAD+

C. O2                            D. Peroxide

99. Hybridoma technique is used to obtain

(A) Purified antibodies

(B) Purified antigens

(C) Purified lymphocytes

(D) Purified macrophages

100. Coenzyme required for decarboxylation is:

A. Pyridoxal phosphate

B. Glutarnate dehydrogenase

C. Tetrahydrofolate

D. Biotin

1.   C

 2.   B

3.   C

4.   B

5.   B

6.   C

7.   D

8.   A

9.   A

10.   B

11.   B

12.   B

13.   A

14.   B

15.   A

16.   D

17.   C

18.   A

19.   B

20.   D

21.   C

22.   C

23.   D

24.   C

25.   D

26.   A

27.   A

28.   D

29.   A

30.   A

31.   D

32.   D

33.   C

34.   B

35.   A

36.   D

37.   A

38.   A

39.   C

40.   D

41.   A

42.   C

43.   B

44.   C

45.  C

46.   A

47.   C

48.   A

49.   D

50.   B

51.   D

52.   D

53.   D

54.   A

55.   B

56.   B

57.   B

58.   A

59.   C

60.   A

61.   C

62.   A

63.   D

64.   B

65.   A

66.   C

67.   A

68.   C

69.   A

70.   A

71.   A

72.   D

73.   C

74.   A

75.   B

76.   A

77.   D

78.   D

79.   C

80.   A

81.   D

82.   C

83.   C

84.   D

85.   C

86.   B

87.   A

88.   C

89.   B

90.   A

91.   B

92.   B

93.   C

94.   D

95.   A

96.   A

97.   C

98.   B

99.   A

100.   A


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